"To them that are without Torah, as without Torah (BEING NOT WITHOUT TORAH TO YAH, BUT UNDER THE TORAH TO CHRIST), that I might gain them that are without Torah."
How does the Apostle Paul say he will cause the Gentiles, those WITHOUT TORAH, to be converted? How will Paul gain these lawless souls?
HE WILL GAIN THEM BY BEING UNDER THE TORAH TO CHRIST.
The Gentiles had little to ZERO knowledge of the Torah of Moshe. The Jews had pretty much kept the Torah exclusively to themselves. The Apostle Paul, breaking this long standing tradition of his fathers, would be as one without Torah (by virtue of going to the Gentiles which no one keeping Torah had really contemplated doing before) yet he would still be UNDER THR TORAH TO CHRIST.
Rather than excluding the Gentiles, Paul understood YHVH had made it clear Gentiles could also be grafted into the commonwealth of Yisrael (Ephesians 2) and ALSO KEEP TORAH by repenting and following Christ.
Christ is the key -- through His shed blood, He allows both Jew and Gentile to keep the Torah. Just as it was in Exodus 12, when the Gentile Egyptians had the option to join unto Yisrael at that first Passover, so too do the Gentiles now have the option to enter into the Jewish Covebnant by the blood of the Jewish Messiah.
Paul did not throw away the Torah, rather he said he would be UNDER THE TORAH TO CHRIST.
Now, I don't know how anyone can twist or corrupt that verse to claim Paul taught AGAINT TORAH. If he is going to be one as UNDER UNDER UNDER UNDER the Torah to Christ, this must mean part of his gospel message would include telling the Gentiles how to subject themselves UNDER UNDER UNDER the Torah of Moshe.
Another great new testament verse proving Paul taught the Gentiles to keep the Torah of Moshe.